George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Nov 27 00:17:06 EST 2008
ἀμὴν γὰρ λέγω ὑμῖν·ἕως ἂν παρέλθῃ ὁ οὐρανὸς καὶ ἡ γῆ, ἰῶτα ἓν ἢ μία κεραία οὐ μὴ παρέλθῃ ἀπὸ τοῦ νόμου, ἕως ἂν πάντα γένηται.
AMNN GAR LEGW hUMIN: hEWS AN PARELQHi hO OURANOS KAI hH GH, IWTA hEN H MIA KERAIA OU MH PARELQHi APO TOU NOMOU, hEWS AN PANTA GENHTAI
Part of the answer to your question depends upon whether one conceives that Jesus was speaking in Aramaic or Greek. There is even a possibility that he may have spoken Hebrew or Latin. In any case, what we have is Greek. There really isn't an indication that these terms were translation from Hebrew or Aramaic except for the fact that HALOT seems to think that the Hebrew word &eRe+ [or "seret" to make it easier to read for those not accustomed to Hebrew transliteration] which indicates a punctuation mark or a slash. The Greek usage is perfectly normal since LSJ has entries for this use dating from 4 BC through 4 AD [IWTA we know]. The KERAIA indicated a stroke much like one might in printer's terms call a serif [check this in an English dictionary if it is not clear to you]. I don't know Portuguese though I am sometimes able to understand fragments from Spanish. In this passage the _Biblia de las Americas_ uses the term "tilde" which I
understand to reference the wavy line over the "n" [ñ]. Perhaps you also use this term in Portuguese.
As regards your question of whether this had significance for understanding the authority of the Hebrew text as well as the Greek translation, if by "extrapolating the list" you are asking whether you are going beyond the list's boundaries, I would say, "Yes." I would, however, recommend that you translate this into the most closely comparable term in Portuguese you can find.
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
From: Fridolin Janzen <fjanzen at gmx.net>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Wednesday, November 26, 2008 10:24:00 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] IWTA
When Jesus mentioned the letter IWTA in Matthew 5:18 was He making reference
to the Hebrew yod or to the Greek IWTA?
Could it be that by mentioning KERAIA He was referring to the Hebrew text
and by mentioning IWTA He was referring to the Greek translation of the OT?
Would this than mean that both, the Hebrew and the Greek translation of the
OT are equally to be considered to be the Word of God to be taken seriously
up to its smallest particles? or could this be a possible prophetic
reference to the writing of the Greek NT?
If He was referring to the Hebrew letter, why didn't He use the Hebrew word
Am I extrapolating the list?
Why is this important to me? Well, how should I translate the words into
Portuguese? Should I maintain the original, transliterate them, or should I
use a Portuguese idiom that transmits the same idea?
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