[B-Greek] IWTA

Fridolin Janzen fjanzen at gmx.net
Wed Nov 26 10:24:00 EST 2008

Dear friends,

When Jesus mentioned the letter IWTA in Matthew 5:18 was He making reference
to the Hebrew yod or to the Greek IWTA?
Could it be that by mentioning KERAIA He was referring to the Hebrew text
and by mentioning IWTA He was referring to the Greek translation of the OT?
Would this than mean that both, the Hebrew and the Greek translation of the
OT are equally to be considered to be the Word of God to be taken seriously
up to its smallest particles?  or could this be a possible prophetic
reference to the writing of the Greek NT?
If He was referring to the Hebrew letter, why didn't He use the Hebrew word
for it?
Am I extrapolating the list?
Why is this important to me? Well, how should I translate the words into
Portuguese? Should I maintain the original, transliterate them, or should I
use a Portuguese idiom that transmits the same idea?

Fridolin Janzen
Presidente da Sociedade Origem & Destino
Rua Dom Aquino, 1354, sala 41
Campo Grande, MS


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