[B-Greek] Special use of the dative James 4:17
cwconrad2 at mac.com
Thu Nov 20 09:10:28 EST 2008
On Nov 20, 2008, at 8:02 AM, Mark Cain wrote:
> Dative of disadvantage?
> EIDOTI OUN KALON POIEIN KAI MH POIOUNTI hAMARTIA AUTW ESTIN James 4:17
> I was discussing this passage with a friend the other day and his
> take on this passage is that "hAMARTIA AUTW ESTIN" uses not a true
> dative in the sense of the indirect object, but a dative of
> advantage - disadvantage. I wasn't sure and had to do some research
> -- but it seems that the dative of dis/advantage occurs mostly
> around verbs of buying, selling, depriving and motion.
> What do you think? Is this a special use of the dative, or is it
> simple the indirect object? Is there a general grammatical rule for
> the use of EIMI + dative?
I think I'd call it a dative of possession (and I'd call that a true
dative rather than a locative or instrumental dative): "A sin is his
(belongs/accrues to him) who knows how to do good and doesn't do it."
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
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