[B-Greek] Beginning question: 1 John 4:2/3
si at kittle.co.uk
Tue Nov 18 18:13:02 EST 2008
I hope this question isn't too basic for this list (it looks like it may be
compared to some archives, so please forgive that).
Basically I'm stuck on some grammar. In 1 John 4:2 there is this:
PAN PNEUMA hO hOMOLOGEI IHSOUN CRISTON EN SARKI ELHLQOTA EK TOU QEOU ESTIN
I can see how that would generally be translated, "Every spirit which
confesses Jesus Christ as having come in the flesh is from God."
My question is why couldn't that read "Every spirit which confesses Jesus
Christ as having come in the flesh from God, is."
I realise word order doesn't have that same function as it does in English.
I think just the fact that the "is" was at the end of the sentence made me
ask the question.
Would attaching the second proposition, the EK one, to Jesus Christ, as in
my second reading (as opposed to it being the second half the a prediacate
proposition) be valid grammatically? If not, how would you render that
second reading if you wanted to say it in Greek?
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