[B-Greek] Aorist as Verbal Aspect

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Mon May 12 22:49:03 EDT 2008

--- "Dr. Don Wilkins" <drdwilkins at verizon.net> wrote:

> I applaud Randall in his pointing out the
> significance of the  
> augment, which aspect-only advocates must explain
> away to maintain  
> their positions, though I think they have
> contributed something to  
> our understanding of Greek grammar. When you remove
> the augment by  
> employing a mood other than the indicative, you do
> find the aorist  
> used of the present, and even of the future. 

Dr. Wilkins:

But the non-Indicative mood would not portray an
actual event, right? So how could such an event be
called "present or future"? It seems to me that events
would be possible or potential, but not actual, with
reference to time.


> most statements are  
> in the indicative, where the aorist is virtually
> confined to past  
> time. I would also submit that all tenses and moods
> are necessarily  
> subjective portrayals of events. 

I'm assuming this does not take into consideration
narratives and didactic sections, which seem to cover
most of the NT. I am really not sure why "all" tenses
and moods are "necessarily" subjective. I would
suspect that much of the NT is Gospel writers
recalling what they saw or heard, and the epistles are
basically providing instruction.

Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas

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