[B-Greek] Aorist as Verbal Aspect

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Sun May 11 00:16:05 EDT 2008


I am reading a book by Dr. Campbell (Verbal Aspect,
the Indicative Mood, and Narrative). It seems to me
that I'm just not able to follow a certain line of
reason. I've read it before in McKay (and Porter who
expands on McKay's ideas). 

How can it be argued that Aspect is a subjective (how
the writer chooses to portray the event) portrayal of
an event, not how an event ACTUALLY occurs/occurred,
and then not expect to see a much higher number of
Aorists being used in Present and Future situations?

In other words, why doesn't a Greek writer hardly ever
want to portray a current event from an external
viewpoint? If it is indeed a subjective means of
portraying an event by a writer, who surely portrays
events for literary effect at times, why do we not see
far more Aorists used in present circumstances? 

The more I think about it, it would seem to me that we
ought to see the Aorist as often as we see any other
tense for present events. Why do writers almost always
want to present Present events from an internal
perspective? It almost sounds as if it is not a
subjective choice based on the percent of Aorists used
for present events. 



Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas


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