[B-Greek] Hendiadys: Does it always involve a conjunction?

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Thu May 8 12:22:59 EDT 2008


On May 8, 2008, at 12:18 PM, Scott Stocking wrote:

> I've been trying to find out some information on hendiadys in Greek.  
> BDF has
> a limited discussion of it, but it centers around the use of KAI.  
> Wallace's
> grammar doesn't use the term. Merriam-Webster says the construction  
> uses
> "and" in English, but it's not clear if this applies to other  
> languages. Is
> it possible to have a hendiadytic (sp???) construction in Greek  
> without KAI
> or another conjunction? I am thinking of TWi QEWi TWi SWTHRI MOU in  
> Luke
> 1.47 as an example. The phrase could certainly be understood as an
> appositive, but I'm wondering if SWTHRI could be understood  
> adjectivally
> (through hendiadys) as well, translating the phrase "My Savior God,"  
> because
> the syntax is attributive (article-noun-article-(noun as) adjective).

For my part, I don't know of any phrase that's been termed a  
"hendiadys" (hEN DIA DUOIN, "one (sense) by means of two  
(expressions)"). Where a second word functions as a gloss or  
equivalent of the first -- without any intervening conjunction -- I  
think we would normally call it an "appositive" or a case of  
"apposition." Surely TWi QEWi TWi SWTHRI MOU is an instance of  
apposition.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)






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