[B-Greek] influence of Hebrew on the GNT

Caleb Hembd caleb06 at gmail.com
Tue Sep 25 10:35:43 EDT 2007


Dear all,

Recently Mr. George Somsel made this comment on the Moulton-Howard-Turner
Greek grammar:

"There are problems with Turner's views regarding the relationship between
the Greek of the NT and its relationship to Hebrew, but it is still an
important work."

This comment led me to wonder: what are the main schools of thought
regarding the relationship between the Greek of the NT and Hebrew? It
seems there has been a wide variety of opinion over time, with some saying
that parts of the GNT have been substantially influenced by Hebrew, and
others believing the influence to be minimal. For example, I recently
learned that in Matthew's gospel, the phrase BASILEIAN TWN OURANWN is always
used for "kingdom of heaven," because the Hebrew word for "heaven" is always
plural/dual.

It would be very interesting to hear both past and present thinking on this
subject. I know this is a broad question, but any comments would be helpful.

Sincerely,
Caleb Hembd



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