[B-Greek] Tense of HUPOTASSO in Philippians 3:21 and 1 Corinthians 15:28
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Fri Oct 5 11:14:08 EDT 2007
On Oct 5, 2007, at 10:11 AM, kramer kramer wrote:
> Both verses put the subjection of all things in the aorist tense.
> Does this mean that the subjection of all things has already
> occurred? If so, how do we do justice to the unmistakeable
> prophetic language of 1 Corinthians 15:28?
In Philippians 3:21 the verb hUPOTAXAI is an infinitive and it's not
a matter of WHEN at all but of the power to effect subordination.
κατὰ τὴν ἐνέργειαν τοῦ δύνασθαι
αὐτὸν καὶ ὑποτάξαι αὐτῷ τὰ πάντα.
KATA THN ENERGEIAN TOU DUNASQAI AUTON KAI hUPOTAXAI AUTWi TA PANTA
In 1 Cor 15:27 πάντα γὰρ ὑπέταξεν ὑπὸ
τοὺς πόδας αὐτοῦ
PANTA GAR hUPETAXEN hUPO TOUS PODAS AUTOU
is a citation from Psalm 8 where the psalmist is referring to
humanity but Paul understands the text to refer to the authority of
the Son of Man.
In 1Cor. 15:28 ὅταν δὲ ὑποταγῇ αὐτῷ τὰ
πάντα, τότε [καὶ] αὐτὸς ὁ υἱὸς
ὑποταγήσεται τῷ ὑποτάξαντι αὐτῷ
hOTAN DE hUPOTAGHi AUTWi TA PANTA, TOTE [KAI] AUTOS hO hUIOS
hUPOTAGHSETAI TWi hUPOTAXANTI AUTWi TA PANTA -- all forms of
hUPOTASSW (hUPOTAGHi, hUPOTAGHSETAI, hUPOTAXANTI) refer to the future:
hUPOTAGHi is aorist subjunctive dependent upon hOTAN
hUPOTAGHSETAI is future indicative
hUPOTAXANTI is aorist participle referring to a completed action
contemplated in the future.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Ret)
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