[B-Greek] Tense of HUPOTASSO in Philippians 3:21 and 1 Corinthians 15:28

kramer kramer brews4jesus at yahoo.com
Fri Oct 5 10:11:32 EDT 2007


Both verses put the subjection of all things in the aorist tense.  Does this mean that the subjection of all things has already occurred?  If so, how do we do justice to the unmistakeable prophetic language of 1 Corinthians 15:28?
   
  Kramer

       
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