[B-Greek] OUCI MENON SOI EMENEN, Acts 5:4--A Hebraism?
webb at selftest.net
Mon Jul 30 16:41:40 EDT 2007
Sorry, list members--the question below was not well expressed. Let me try
Translators assume that the participle MENON in Acts 5:4 means "while it
remained unsold", so that the phrase OUCI MENON SOI EMENEN means, "Did it
not remain yours (OUCI...SOI EMENEN), while it remained (MENON) [unsold]"?
I'm asking whether it is possible that OUCI MENON SOI EMENEN is a
literalistic rendering of a Hebrew original that had the emphatic infinitive
absolute + finite verb form. For example, Judges 4:9 has Deborah saying to
Barak, "I will surely go". In Hebrew that is HLK 'LK, infinitive absolute +
finite verb. The LXX renders it, POREUOMENH POREUSOMAI--participle + finite
verb. Is it possible that the same pattern is to be seen here in Acts 5:4,
with MENON + EMENEN?
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Webb
Sent: Monday, July 30, 2007 11:59 AM
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [B-Greek] OUCI MENON SOI EMENEN, Acts 5:4--A Hebraism?
OUCI MENON SOI EMENEN, KAI PRAQEN EN THi SHi EXOUSIAi hUPHRCEN? (Acts 5:4a)
All translations I've looked at assume that OUCI MENON means "while it
remained [unsold]". But as little Hebrew as I know, this looks to me like it
could be a literalistic translation of an emphatic statement in Hebrew, with
the force, "Wasn't it entirely yours?"
Can some of the Hebrew and Greek (and Greek translation from Hebrew)
specialists on the list comment on whether this idea has any plausibility?
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