[B-Greek] i John 4:8 and 16
Jerry at lsm.org
Fri Jul 27 14:09:50 EDT 2007
Concerning the statements in 1 John 4:8 and 16 (o theos agape estin) and the statement in John 1:1:
Should the anarthrous construction (of these anarthrous predicate nouns) be noted for adjectival meaning? In other words, should 1 John 4:8, 16 be considered similar to 1 John 1:5 (o theos phos estin) and John 1:1 (theos een o logos) not just in construction but in meaning? For example, is it accurate to say that these predicate nouns are not giving ontological meanings, per se, but descriptive suggestions such as: God has a loving nature, is benevolent (1 John 4:8,16); God is bright, shining (1 John 1:5) and the word was divine, had godness, was godish (John 1:1)?
I have long had the assumption that anarthrousness (is that a word?) usually leans over onto the qualitative side of things wherever it is found. If this is generally true, and is true in these verses, is it then correct to say that we do not have intended ontological statements as to essence in these places but that we have adjectival modification and therefore further information about the subject?
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