j.d.ernest at bc.edu
Wed Jul 11 07:41:51 EDT 2007
At http://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grec_ancien the section headed Mots
savants et radicaux grecs notes that that German tends to invent new
words based on German roots rather than pick up Greek roots as French
and English do (Fernseher, etc.--a more recent example than Godet);
but I don't know what relevance vocabulary has to discourse features.
On 7/10/07, Jonathan Robie <jwrobie at mindspring.com> wrote:
> I'm reading "The Relevance of Greek Discourse Studies to Exegesis", by
> Stephen H. Levinsohn, Journal of Translation, Volume 2, Number 2 (2006).
> This surprised me:
> > As an aside, what I found interesting, as I prepared for a workshop on
> > 1 Corinthians in Papua New Guinea,
> > was the frequency with which the Frenchman Frédéric Louis Godet (1886)
> > had something valuable to say
> > about discourse-related features of the Greek. Why? Probably because
> > his mother tongue, though a
> > Romance language, evidences more Greek influence than Germanic ones do.
> Can anyone help me understand in what way it can be said that French
> shows more Greek influence than Germanic languages? The highly declined
> nature of German, and its freedom in word order, have always made German
> feel more similar to Greek to me, but he must be thinking of other
> characteristics of the languages.
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