jwrobie at mindspring.com
Tue Jul 10 06:17:11 EDT 2007
I'm reading "The Relevance of Greek Discourse Studies to Exegesis", by
Stephen H. Levinsohn, Journal of Translation, Volume 2, Number 2 (2006).
This surprised me:
> As an aside, what I found interesting, as I prepared for a workshop on
> 1 Corinthians in Papua New Guinea,
> was the frequency with which the Frenchman Frédéric Louis Godet (1886)
> had something valuable to say
> about discourse-related features of the Greek. Why? Probably because
> his mother tongue, though a
> Romance language, evidences more Greek influence than Germanic ones do.
Can anyone help me understand in what way it can be said that French
shows more Greek influence than Germanic languages? The highly declined
nature of German, and its freedom in word order, have always made German
feel more similar to Greek to me, but he must be thinking of other
characteristics of the languages.
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