[B-Greek] Present Tense
ken.penner at acadiau.ca
Mon Jul 9 08:32:35 EDT 2007
I would say the reasoning is valid as long as it is not insisted upon too strongly. I caution against over-interpreting the aspect(tense) for two reasons: (1) DIDASKW normally appears in the present (in the active voice, the NT has it 77 times in the present/imperfect, and only 13 in the aorist). (2) 2 Tim 2:2 uses the aorist for what seems to me to be regular teaching.
Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.
Assistant Professor of Biblical Studies,
Acadia Divinity College,
Wolfville, Nova Scotia,
Canada B4P 2R6.
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Seth
> Sent: July 9, 2007 7:16 AM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [B-Greek] Present Tense
> Hi B-Greek Listers!
> I hope you're all having a blessed day today. Please read on!
> DIDASKEIN DE GUNAIKI OUK EPITREPW OUDE AUQENTEIN ANDROS ALL
> EINAI EN HSUXIA
> (1 Tim. 2:12).
> The Koine words that are in question (in view of the greater
> context of the
> passage) are DIDASKEIN and AUQENTEIN. Some expositors claim
> that since these verbs are in the "present, active,
> infinitive," it should be deduced that Paul is speaking about
> continual regularity in regard to teaching and leading; as
> opposed to individual, finite instances of teaching or
> exercising authority. Thus, it should be deduced that Paul
> was referring to the question of who would hold positional
> authority to instruct and lead ( i.e., the congregational
> pastor), and that he was not referring to isolated instances
> where a woman could theoretically find herself teaching or
> exercising authority over a man, perhaps as a lay-leader of sorts.
> Contextually and linguistically speaking, is this conclusion valid?
> Thank you,
> Seth Moran
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