[B-Greek] Present Tense

Ken Penner ken.penner at acadiau.ca
Mon Jul 9 08:32:35 EDT 2007


I would say the reasoning is valid as long as it is not insisted upon too strongly. I caution against over-interpreting the aspect(tense) for two reasons: (1) DIDASKW normally appears in the present (in the active voice, the NT has it 77 times in the present/imperfect, and only 13 in the aorist). (2) 2 Tim 2:2 uses the aorist for what seems to me to be regular teaching.

Ken

Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.
Assistant Professor of Biblical Studies,
Acadia Divinity College,
Wolfville, Nova Scotia,
Canada B4P 2R6.
(902)585-2213
http://purl.org/net/kmpenner/

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org 
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Seth
> Sent: July 9, 2007 7:16 AM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [B-Greek] Present Tense
> 
> Hi B-Greek Listers!
> 
> I hope you're all having a blessed day today. Please read on!
> 
> DIDASKEIN DE GUNAIKI OUK EPITREPW OUDE AUQENTEIN ANDROS ALL 
> EINAI EN HSUXIA
> (1 Tim. 2:12).
> 
> The Koine words that are in question (in view of the greater 
> context of the
> passage) are DIDASKEIN and AUQENTEIN. Some expositors claim 
> that since these verbs are in the "present, active, 
> infinitive," it should be deduced that Paul is speaking about 
> continual regularity in regard to teaching and leading; as 
> opposed to individual, finite instances of teaching or 
> exercising authority. Thus, it should be deduced that Paul 
> was referring to the question of who would hold positional 
> authority to instruct and lead ( i.e., the congregational 
> pastor), and that he was not referring to isolated instances 
> where a woman could theoretically find herself teaching or 
> exercising authority over a man, perhaps as a lay-leader of sorts.
> 
> Contextually and linguistically speaking, is this conclusion valid?
> 
> Thank you,
> 
> --
> Seth Moran



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