[B-Greek] Jam 1:13 APEIRASTOS 'unable to' or 'unable to be ~'

Jeffrey B. Gibson jgibson000 at comcast.net
Fri Jul 6 12:14:17 EDT 2007



"Bryant J. Williams III" wrote:

> Dear Jeffrey,
>
> I think the paragraph that one needs to look at in Colin Brown is the
> paragraphs describing how PEIRAW and PEIRAZW in Classical Greek became the
> meanings given. Furthermore, the article goes into quite a bit of discussion
> in the OT usage of the word-group including LXX, Qumran (without the
> dualism) and Rabbinic literature before tackling the NT usages. It seems to
> me that Classical Greek usage was NON-religious in the sense of "putting
> someone to the test" whether that was good or bad. It is the use of the
> word-group in the LXX translating primarily the Hebrew word-group, NASAH,
> that it starts to take on the religious overtones of "testing, entice to do
> evil, etc."

FWIW,  I find the distinction between a "secular" and a "religious" sense of PEIRAZW wholly
unfounded. The so called "religious" understanding of PEIRAZW as a covenantal term =  "to test
faithfulness" is not exclusive to Biblical writings. It is attested in "secular" Greek literature.

More importantly, I. along with S.R. Driver (see his commentary on Deuteronomy) and the TDOT entry
on NSH,  do not find NASAH ever being used in the HB with the sense of "to entice someone to do
something", let alone "to do evil".  Nor do I see it being used with this sense in the DSS or in
Rabbinic literature.  But I may be missing something.  Can you point me to instances where it is
used in this way?

Jeffrey
--
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon)
1500 W. Pratt Blvd.
Chicago, Illinois
e-mail jgibson000 at comcast.net





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