[B-Greek] Jam 1:13 APEIRASTOS 'unable to' or 'unable to be ~'

Oun Kwon kwonbbl at gmail.com
Wed Jul 4 21:35:07 EDT 2007

> On 7/4/07, Jeffrey B. Gibson <jgibson000 at comcast.net> wrote:
>  Oun Kwon wrote:
>  > Why!  In Source, Ann Nyland gives an example of extra-biblical source
>  > for this rare word, where it reads 'who puts no one through an
>  > ordeal', the way I like to understand in the text of  James.
>  >
>  I'm not sure this solves any problems.  Indeed, it creates one --  for it
>  is clear in the Hebrew Bible/LXX that God **does** put people through
>  ordeals (cf. e.g.., Gen. 22; Deut 6-8).
>  Jeffrey

James states that God does not put us through ordeals.  I think it has
to do with 'by evil means' in the preceding clause.



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