[B-Greek] Jam 1:13 APEIRASTOS 'unable to' or 'unable to be ~'
kwonbbl at gmail.com
Wed Jul 4 21:35:07 EDT 2007
> On 7/4/07, Jeffrey B. Gibson <jgibson000 at comcast.net> wrote:
> Oun Kwon wrote:
> > Why! In Source, Ann Nyland gives an example of extra-biblical source
> > for this rare word, where it reads 'who puts no one through an
> > ordeal', the way I like to understand in the text of James.
> I'm not sure this solves any problems. Indeed, it creates one -- for it
> is clear in the Hebrew Bible/LXX that God **does** put people through
> ordeals (cf. e.g.., Gen. 22; Deut 6-8).
James states that God does not put us through ordeals. I think it has
to do with 'by evil means' in the preceding clause.
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