[B-Greek] Luke 19:31
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Fri Nov 17 11:49:25 EST 2006
First, let's get the text before us again.
KAI EAN hUMAS ERWTAi, "DIA TI LUETE?" hOUTWS ERITE hOTI "hO KURIOS AUTOU XREIAN EXEI."
What I am exploring here is the reason for the statement "hO KURIOS AUTOU XREIAN EXEI." This would seem to presuppose that anyone who asked would be aware of to whom "hO KURIOS" refers and would have no objection to Jesus' use of the animal. The problem is that we are not told that this is the case. While there is generally an economy of expression in the gospels in particular, they do generally contain all of the information which we need to understand them. If, however, the statement is somewhat ambiguous so that it could refer to either Jesus as hO KURIOS or to the owner of the animal, then the answer might be understandable as being sufficient. I feel very uncomfortable ASSUMING that Jesus had some prior contact with the people of this village and was known to them. Furthermore, the simple designation as hO KURIOS is not in itself identifying if it does not refer to the owner of the animal since it was a common form of address.
----- Original Message ----
From: Carlton Winbery <winberycl at earthlink.net>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Friday, November 17, 2006 11:38:20 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Luke 19:31
>I was somewhat anticipating a comment regarding the matter of
>concord between KWMHN in 19.30 and AUTOU in 19.31 in my proposal.
>Since I didn't get any response, I'll ask a question. Might AUTOU
>refer to KWMHN despite its lack of agreement in gender as being a
>constructio ad sensum, and thus having the natural gender, since the
>authorities in the village would in this era be males?
>In 19:30-31. . . PWLON (PWLOS m.) . . . AUTON . . . AUTOU . . .
George, what's wrong with the obvious, the antecedent of both
pronouns is PWLON. Its the PWLOS that has to be untied and its the
PWLOS that "The Lord has need of." AUTOU explains the need. Am I
missing something here?
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