[B-Greek] A question on Lk. 10:39

Barry nebarry at verizon.net
Tue Nov 7 06:39:50 EST 2006


Yes, the beginning textbooks usually call it "the dative of possession...

N.E. Barry Hofstetter 
Adjunct Faculty & IT Support 
The Center for Urban Theological Studies 
http://www.cuts.edu 
Classics Instructor, The American Academy 
http://www.theamericanacademy.net 
And my site: 
http://mysite.verizon.net/nebarry 
 


> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org]
> On Behalf Of Iver Larsen
> Sent: Tuesday, November 07, 2006 2:14 AM
> To: José Antonio Septién; B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] A question on Lk. 10:39
> 
> >
> > KAI TADE HN ADELFH KALOUMENH MARIAM. . . .
> >
> > Most of translators translate the (HN) as had: And she had a sister called Mary.
> . .
> >
> > Is it possible to consider "to have" as a proper meannig of EIMI?
> > Thanks.
> > J. A. Septien
> 
> Yes, it is. Notice that the Greek demonstrative is in the dative: THiDE, not TADE.
> When in Greek "a
> sister exists to Martha" the common way of saying that in English is that "Martha
> has a sister". The
> English word "have" in this construction does not indicate ownership, but a
> relationship. Many
> languages express that relationship with a verb for being plus a beneficiary.
> 
> Another example from the GNT is
> Acts 10:6: hOUTOS XENIZETAI PARA TINI SIMWNI, BURSEI, hWi ESTIN OIKIA
> PARA QALASSAN
> 
> (He is staying as a guest with someone called Simon, a tanner, who has a house
> by the sea)
> 
> Iver Larsen
> 
> ---
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