[B-Greek] A question on Lk. 10:39
iver_larsen at sil.org
Tue Nov 7 02:14:14 EST 2006
> KAI TADE HN ADELFH KALOUMENH MARIAM. . . .
> Most of translators translate the (HN) as had: And she had a sister called Mary. . .
> Is it possible to consider "to have" as a proper meannig of EIMI?
> J. A. Septien
Yes, it is. Notice that the Greek demonstrative is in the dative: THiDE, not TADE. When in Greek "a
sister exists to Martha" the common way of saying that in English is that "Martha has a sister". The
English word "have" in this construction does not indicate ownership, but a relationship. Many
languages express that relationship with a verb for being plus a beneficiary.
Another example from the GNT is
Acts 10:6: hOUTOS XENIZETAI PARA TINI SIMWNI, BURSEI, hWi ESTIN OIKIA PARA QALASSAN
(He is staying as a guest with someone called Simon, a tanner, who has a house by the sea)
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