[B-Greek] Emphatic forms of pronouns following prepositions
robbw at calvary-tricities.org
Sun Nov 5 13:04:11 EST 2006
I previously understood that when a pronoun was in its emphatic form as
opposed to its regular form, the author was showing emphasis. But I just
read that often emphatic forms are used when the pronouns are the objects of
prepositions, even when no emphasis was meant. So for example John 14:1:
…you believe in God, believe also in me.
…pisteuete eis ton qeon, kai eis eme pisteuete.
I always thought John was emphasizing “ME” in the verse primarily by using
the emphatic form “eme” (and also by placing it before the verb at the
beginning of the clause), but “eme” is also the object of the preposition.
Does that just make “eme” regular in meaning, with no emphasis implied or is
it still emphatic?
So, if we took word order out of the equation and changed it to “kai
pisteuete eis eme”, would we still translate this as “believe also in ME
(emphasized)” or simply as “believe also in me”?
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