[B-Greek] Does the gender of a noun dictate the gender of a previous pronoun?

Jason Kerrigan restoringchristianity at yahoo.com
Fri Nov 3 11:44:31 EST 2006


I know that pronouns always match the gender of their antecedents, but if there is no atecedent do they necessarily match the gender of a subsequent noun that identifies the same subject as that previous pronoun does?  Or, does the gender of the pronoun instead express the actual gender of the subject referred to despite the fact the that subsequent noun may not do so?

Thanks,
Jason W. Kerrigan

 
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