[B-Greek] Jn 20:28 - Grammatical difference between the nominative for vocative or of exclamation?
MSangrey at BlueFeltHat.org
Fri Mar 31 19:46:21 EST 2006
On Fri, 2006-03-31 at 15:03 -0800, Robb Wallace wrote:
> Jn 20:28 APEKRIQH QWMAS KAI EIPEN AUTWi, hO KURIOS MOU KAI hO QEOS MOU.
> The phrase “My Lord and my God” in Jn 20:28 contains articular
> nominatives (Lord, God) which are identified by Robertson and Wallace
> as the “Nominative for Vocative”. I would think the way Jehovah’s
> Witnesses view this they would want to classify it as the “Nominative
> for Exclamation”. Besides context (Jesus not rebuking Thomas) is there
> a way to tell the difference between the use of the nominative for
> vocative and the nominative of exclamation strictly by syntax? Wallace
> lists 3 ways to identify: (1) the lack of a verb (though one may be
> implied), (2) the obvious emotion of the author, and (3) the necessity
> of an exclamation point in translation. I would think reasons 2 and 3
> could apply here, but would the verbs APEKRIQH and/or EIPEN disqualify
> the phrase as a Nominative for Exclamation? Are there any additional
> ways to support the Nom. for Vocative identification?
Well, then you have the nominative of exclamatory vocative.
I'll let the bigger Greeks answer this one; but, I just wanted to point
out the issue of multiplication of categories. Some people are
'splitters' and some people are 'combiners'. If analysis of the text is
driven by labeling each word, then 'splitters' will always win.
Mike Sangrey (msangrey AT BlueFeltHat.org)
"The first one last wins."
"A net of highly cohesive details reveals the truth."
More information about the B-Greek