[B-Greek] TADE in Revelation

David Bielby dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org
Fri Mar 17 11:22:09 EST 2006

Thank you.  That makes sense to me.  So then John's use here in Rev 2 &
3 does not necessarily support the idea that he was drenching himself in
the LXX version of Ezekiel?

Also-I don't know Hebrew so I didn't comprehend your transliteration of
Hebrew when you said

Carl wrote below-->I don't doubt that TADE LEGEI  
in the LXX commonly conveys Hebrew COH AMAR IHWH, but the common  
usage reflects standard traditional Greek usage of TADE.

What does that mean in english?

Thank you so much!

David Bielby
dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org

-----Original Message-----
From: Carl W. Conrad [mailto:cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu] 
Sent: Thursday, March 16, 2006 10:02 AM
To: Iver Larsen
Cc: David Bielby; BG
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] TADE in Revelation

On Mar 16, 2006, at 2:17 AM, Iver Larsen wrote:

>> I'm also interested to know what the significance is of the word  
>> TADE in
>> Revelation 2-3 which is
>> only used in three times outside of Revelation in the GNT, yet is  
>> used
>> extensively in the LXX.
>> In particular the Torah & Major Prophets.  In particular I see a  
>> phrase
>> TADE LEGEI used in
>> a number of prophetic passages like Ezekiel  44:9 which says DIA  
>> and is repeated in a number of passages in Ezekiel.   I just find it
>> interesting when a GNT term is rare.but
>> common in the LXX.   Does this phrase in Rev 2:1 and the others I'm
>> looking at (Rev 2:8, 12, 18, 3:1, 7 & 14)
>> EN Thi DEXIAi AUTOU not resonate with the phrases in Ezekiel
>> That say.TADE LEGEI KURIOS QEOS..and should this be seen as a self
>> reference to his deity?
>> Isn't it interesting that the only use of TADE outside of  
>> Revelation in
>> the GNT that uses the phrase TADE LEGEI also refers clearly to Deity
>> (Acts 21:11b-TADE LEGE TO PNEUMA TO AGION.)  When TADE is used  
>> outside
>> of that 'formula' if you will.it seems to be simply descriptive.   
>> So my
>> question this.does my line of thinking fit with the usage of TADE in
>> general?  was this a pattern outside the NT literature.am I off on  
>> this
>> idea or close to what's right?
> The demonstrative hODE had pretty much gone out of use at the time  
> of the NT (10 occurrences in the GNT and 454 in LXX).
> Its occurrence in Revelation probably means that it stands for a  
> Hebrew word (koh) that was still in use.
> I think you can compare it with English "thus" as in "Thus says the  
> Lord..."  People don't speak like that anymore
> unless in specific situations.
> Revelation has a flavor in Greek not unlike the KJV in English. The  
> TADE may well have caused the readers to remember
> similar expressions in the Hebraic LXX.

Granted that TADE appears only 8x in Rev and other forms of hODE only  
2x in the GNT, it is not true that hODE is obsolete in Hellenistic  
Greek. TADE as pointed forward to cited material or a list and  
functioning more or less like a colon in modern punctuation is  
standard Greek from pretty far back and is found in Philo and  
Josephus and the early church fathers. I don't doubt that TADE LEGEI  
in the LXX commonly conveys Hebrew COH AMAR IHWH, but the common  
usage reflects standard traditional Greek usage of TADE.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/

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