[B-Greek] TADE in Revelation
webb at selftest.net
Thu Mar 16 13:06:48 EST 2006
What I wonder about is if there is a certain formal ring to TADE LEGEI in a
secular Greek-speaking context (i.e. leaving aside the formal "thus says the
LORD" of prophecy). For example, suppose two brothers were traveling abroad.
Could one of them write an informal letter of news to their sister back
home, and use the formula TADE LEGEI to say, "Crispus says, "I miss you, I
hope you are well". If so, there's nothing formal-sounding about it at all.
Or does it only show up in decrees, wills and the like. I didn't find
anything totally clear in M-M to settle the question.
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org]
> On Behalf Of Iver Larsen
> Sent: Thursday, March 16, 2006 11:33 AM
> To: David Bielby; 'BG'
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] TADE in Revelation
> > My thought was that it may represent a heavy influence from Ezekiel and
> > the other prophetic LXX literature. Outside of some use in 1 & 2 Samuel
> > and 1 & 2 Kings, it is rarely used in the LXX...except for the Prophets.
> > Perhaps with 10% of the verses in Ezekiel using this term and no other
> > LXX text or NT book coming near that percentage, except for Jeremiah and
> > Zecheriah...with a lot of uses in Isaiah as well! So in the
> > contemporary literature that was Apocalyptic in (Jewish & Christian
> > first/second century) was this phrase used? So should we to capture the
> > flavor then translate this into modern english using King James style
> > phraseology...
> > "Thus sayeth the Lord" to be true to the text...as you are saying?
> > Would that be something to have the NIV suddenly read in a place like
> > this "Thus sayeth the Lord"....
> > David
> I am not able to check usage in contemporary apocalyptic literature.
> Having looked at this a bit more, I no longer think that it is as unusual
> as the English "thus". TADE seems
> to be the normal word to use in this particular construction where you
> kataphoric demonstrative before LEGEI,
> since hOUTOS is always anaphoric in connection with LEGW. It seems to be a
> construction that is almost exclusively used
> in prophetic contexts, at least at the time of the NT.
> I would not suggest "thus" for a modern English translation. And if you
> indicate a link to the OT prophetic
> books, you would have to use "thus" there, too.
> Iver Larsen
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