[B-Greek] TADE in Revelation

David Bielby dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org
Thu Mar 16 09:12:13 EST 2006

My thought was that it may represent a heavy influence from Ezekiel and
the other prophetic LXX literature. Outside of some use in 1 & 2 Samuel
and 1 & 2 Kings, it is rarely used in the LXX...except for the Prophets.
Perhaps with 10% of the verses in Ezekiel using this term and no other
LXX text or NT book coming near that percentage, except for Jeremiah and
Zecheriah...with a lot of uses in Isaiah as well!  So in the
contemporary literature that was Apocalyptic in (Jewish & Christian
first/second century) was this phrase used?  So should we to capture the
flavor then translate this into modern english using King James style

"Thus sayeth the Lord" to be true to the text...as you are saying?
Would that be something to have the NIV suddenly read in a place like
this "Thus sayeth the Lord"....


-----Original Message-----
From: Iver Larsen [mailto:iver at larsen.dk] 
Sent: Thursday, March 16, 2006 1:17 AM
To: David Bielby; BG
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] TADE in Revelation

> I'm also interested to know what the significance is of the word TADE
> Revelation 2-3 which is
> only used in three times outside of Revelation in the GNT, yet is used
> extensively in the LXX.
> In particular the Torah & Major Prophets.  In particular I see a
> TADE LEGEI used in
> a number of prophetic passages like Ezekiel  44:9 which says DIA TOUTO
> and is repeated in a number of passages in Ezekiel.   I just find it
> interesting when a GNT term is rare.but
> common in the LXX.   Does this phrase in Rev 2:1 and the others I'm
> looking at (Rev 2:8, 12, 18, 3:1, 7 & 14)

> EN Thi DEXIAi AUTOU not resonate with the phrases in Ezekiel
> That say.TADE LEGEI KURIOS QEOS..and should this be seen as a self
> reference to his deity?
> Isn't it interesting that the only use of TADE outside of Revelation
> the GNT that uses the phrase TADE LEGEI also refers clearly to Deity
> (Acts 21:11b-TADE LEGE TO PNEUMA TO AGION.)  When TADE is used outside
> of that 'formula' if you will.it seems to be simply descriptive.  So
> question this.does my line of thinking fit with the usage of TADE in
> general?  was this a pattern outside the NT literature.am I off on
> idea or close to what's right?

The demonstrative hODE had pretty much gone out of use at the time of
the NT (10 occurrences in the GNT and 454 in LXX). 
Its occurrence in Revelation probably means that it stands for a Hebrew
word (koh) that was still in use.

I think you can compare it with English "thus" as in "Thus says the
Lord..."  People don't speak like that anymore 
unless in specific situations.
Revelation has a flavor in Greek not unlike the KJV in English. The TADE
may well have caused the readers to remember 
similar expressions in the Hebraic LXX.

Iver Larsen

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