[B-Greek] Question regarding translation interpretation in Matthew 19
bhaley at fidnet.com
Mon Mar 13 17:02:55 EST 2006
I'm sure this has been addressed in the past but I have been unable to
locate it in the archives.
I have heard it explained by some and refuted by others that the
translation in Matthew 19:9 "committeth adultery" is significant in that
in implies a continuous on-going adultery so long as the marriage shall
last. Does the Greek verb that is translated "committeth adultery" imply
that by being a "present tense" verb? Or is that reading too much into
the language that is used?
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