[B-Greek] article use -Matt 22:44

Raymond Custer leoncuster at yahoo.com
Tue Jun 27 19:49:03 EDT 2006

    There are so very many grammatical ideas on the use of the article in koine Greek.  In my studies, I have yet another for your 
consideration.  I am fairly convinced the use differs by writer.  For instance in Pauls letters, he never calls the Father "Lord" (unless quoting O.T. Septuagint), he calls him "God".   He calls Jesus "The Lord" (usually with article) because Jesus was the most special lord that paul knew.
       Mathew did refer to both the Son and Father as "Lord".  He 
tended to call the Father "The Lord" and Jesus "Lord".  This was how Mathew differentiated the two divine persons to the readers.  So, Mathew tended not to use the article when calling Jesus "Lord", yet Paul insisted on it.  They were both right considering their purpose.
       In Matt 22:28, this does not apply because an O.T. verse was 
being quoted. I should note that the Septuagint (wrongly I think)  altered the Hebrew "YHWH" (tetragramation) to "Lord" somewhere near 6,000 times. The Hebrew was referring to God's personal name, not a title as "Lord" in the N.T. does.  So, could we possibly translate the Hebrew Psa 110:1 as David saying:  "Yahweh (Father) said to my Lord (Son) sit at my right hand until I put thine enemys beneath thy feet"? 
                                                                   Leon Custer
                                                                  Kernersville, NC
                                                              leoncuster at yahoo.com

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