[B-Greek] Mt 22:44 and an absence of the article

Peter Brzeski pete.brzeski at wp.pl
Tue Jun 27 16:49:22 EDT 2006

So would it be correct to view the anarthous KURIOS in these verses as a 
substitute for a proper name, an as such as being a proper name itself 
in some sense? Wallace states that KURIOS is *not* a proper name, but 
wouldn't it qualify for such in this instance? Or should we rather view 
it as a one-of-a-kind, monadic noun? Would KURIOS fit into any (or 
possibly both) of these two categories?

Peter Brzeski

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