[B-Greek] Mt 22:44 and an absence of the article

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue Jun 27 09:00:14 EDT 2006

On Jun 27, 2006, at 7:50 AM, Peter Brzeski wrote:

> Greetings.
> In Mt 22:44 we find an instance of KURIOS without the article  
> preceding it. Daniel Wallace in his Greek Grammar gives a list of  
> conditions under which an anarthous noun can be definite. I was  
> trying to fit this example into one of his categories, but I'm not  
> sure if I got it right.
> My first thought was that KURIOS in this instance could be either  
> taken as a monadic noun or as a proper name, but I'm not sure if it  
> qualifies for either (by the way, I do find these two categories  
> somewhat overlapping).  The passage is a quote from Psalm 110:1,  
> where in the LXX we do find the article before KURIOS, whereas the  
> hebrew text has the tetragrammaton here.
> So my question is: why is KURIOS anarthous in Mt 22:44?

This is a citation from the LXX, Ps. 110.1; it appears also in Mk  
12:36 and Lk 20:42.

Anarthrous KURIOS in the LXX conveys the tetragram IHWH, not directly  
but rather by giving the Greek equivalent of Heb. ADONAI.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/

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