[B-Greek] Mt 22:44 and an absence of the article
hholmyard at ont.com
Tue Jun 27 08:54:16 EDT 2006
>In Mt 22:44 we find an instance of KURIOS without the article preceding it. Daniel Wallace in his Greek Grammar gives a list of conditions under which an anarthous noun can be definite. I was trying to fit this example into one of his categories, but I'm not sure if I got it right.
>My first thought was that KURIOS in this instance could be either taken as a monadic noun or as a proper name, but I'm not sure if it qualifies for either (by the way, I do find these two categories somewhat overlapping). The passage is a quote from Psalm 110:1, where in the LXX we do find the article before KURIOS, whereas the hebrew text has the tetragrammaton here.
>So my question is: why is KURIOS anarthous in Mt 22:44?
HH: If I remember correctly, this kind of usage occurs quite a bit in
the NT when the reference is to God the Father.
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