[B-Greek] Translation of Aorist Indicative Verbs in 1 John 2:12-14
lillianlbelt at yahoo.com
Mon Jun 26 11:13:40 EDT 2006
I am a new subscriber to this web site, and offer a humble opinion on the question. I am not a scholar, have only one semister of NT Greek from OK University, but have been reading NT Greek for many years. I admit that I have never mastered it, and do not pretend to it.
It is it possible that John was only using a common Hebrew literary technique of doubling or repeating a statement to add to its weight, such as using, "blessing, I will bless", or using the plural for referring to God as a way to enforce the meaning of greatness; or even such as in Hebrew prose rather than rhyming, such as we do in English, repeating the idea, with a second line, but using different words.
To me, John is just reinforcing his statement by doubling it, and changing the tense. But, then as I said, I am not a scholar, just a reader.
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