[B-Greek] John 20:26

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Mon Jun 19 13:38:34 EDT 2006

Carl has already answered this.  The dating is INCLUSIVE.  You include both the first Saturday and the last Saturday for a total of eight days.

"Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu> wrote:
  From: "Michael Smitten" 
Date: June 19, 2006 1:16:48 PM EDT
Subject: John 20:26


Something has been puzzling me for sometime and it is that almost to 
a man biblical commentators are saying that the "after eight days" in 
John 20:26 means a week later. I know the French have their huit 
jours for a holiday, but that is going on say Saturday and coming 
back on Saturday. But the second Saturday is not eight days later, 
only seven. Anyway, any logical answers, please?

(Michael Smitten)
Like the French reckoning to which you refer (so also German "heute 
in acht Tagen" means "a week from today"), ancient time-reckoning by 
days is INCLUSIVE. So when Jesus is said to have been crucified and 
died on Friday and risen "on the third day," the third day is Sunday.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/

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