[B-Greek] Matt 1:20 to gennethen: Beget or conceive?

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Fri Dec 15 13:41:47 EST 2006

A quick check confirms what I had suspected, viz. that the primary translation for GENNAW is "to be born" used in reference to children.  When used of the male's role it becomes "to beget" and is only rarely used with regard to the female prior to birth -- so rarely that Mt 1.20 is the only passage I find where this is the case.  There is, however, one passage (Gal 4.24) where GENNAW is used regarding the female, but there it is apparently conceived (pun intended) not to reference the period during pregnancy but subsequent thereto and is therefore translated as "bearing children."  I really know of no reason that it could not have been translated as "That which is begotten in her is because of the Holy Spirit."  LSJ likewise notes that this is largely used regarding the father. 

----- Original Message ----
From: Anthony Buzzard <anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Friday, December 15, 2006 12:27:58 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Matt 1:20 to gennethen: Beget or conceive?

In Matt. 1:20 TO GENNETHEN is rendered generally as "what is conceived in her"
Can anyone comment on that translation? Is not GENNAO really a 
begetting here, the action of the father?  Is GENNAO elsewhere ever 
translated "conceive"?
Anthony Buzzard

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