[B-Greek] 1 Cor. 6:20, Why God's?

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Fri Apr 28 16:47:09 EDT 2006


On Apr 28, 2006, at 1:48 PM, Laurence Schell wrote:

> It is some sort of Byzantine text used in the Complete Word Study  
> New Testament put out by AMG. I am also concerned about why they  
> use the possessive, God's.

AMG?
The Greek phrase (found only, as I noted earlier, in TR and MT) is  
hATINA ESTI TOU QEOU.
TOU QEOU is genitive case; that's commonly Englished as "of God" or  
"God's." This is really pretty elementary Greek.


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/





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