[B-Greek] 1 Cor. 6:20, Why God's?

Laurence Schell laurenceschell at yahoo.co.uk
Fri Apr 28 13:48:37 EDT 2006


It is some sort of Byzantine text used in the Complete Word Study New Testament put out by AMG. I am also concerned about why they use the possessive, God's.
   
  Laurence Schell

		
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