[B-Greek] EDIWXA - 1 Corinthians 15:9
zariddle at tiu.edu
Fri Apr 28 12:25:45 EDT 2006
I am wondering why Glen Klein's question was answered with statements
the aorist idicative "indicates a past event"
the aorist indicative is the "simple past tense"
Hasn't aspect theory shown these kinds of descriptions of the aorist
indicative to be misleading? I agree the verb refers to past time, but
we would not say that this is so because the aorist is used, correct?
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