[B-Greek] ἱ?????? in 1 John 2:2 (expiation/propitiation)

George F Somsel gfsomsel at juno.com
Sun Apr 2 03:50:06 EDT 2006

On Sat, 01 Apr 2006 21:30:53 -0600 "DeLano Sheffield"
<delanojsheffield at hotmail.com> writes:
> I was wondering if anyone might have some information on 
> &#7985;λασμός in 1 
> John 2:2. BADG defines the word as 'expiation/propitiation' but I 
> was 
> reading some other references that explain that there is a really 
> distinction between the two words. Are there any other references 
> that might 
> offer more about the word/ use of the word outside of scripture, 
> etc? 
> Perhaps Please forgive me if I do not have the right email format 
> but I look 
> forward to anything you all can offer.
> God Bless,
> DeLano J. Sheffield

There is a fairly extensive article in _TWNT_ on hILEWS, hILASKOMAI,
hILASMOS, hILASTHRION.  Unfortunately, it is much too long to include
here.  You might consider looking it up in the library.


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