[B-Greek] ἱ?????? in 1 John 2:2 (expiation/propitiation)
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at juno.com
Sun Apr 2 03:50:06 EDT 2006
On Sat, 01 Apr 2006 21:30:53 -0600 "DeLano Sheffield"
<delanojsheffield at hotmail.com> writes:
> I was wondering if anyone might have some information on
> ἱλασμός in 1
> John 2:2. BADG defines the word as 'expiation/propitiation' but I
> reading some other references that explain that there is a really
> distinction between the two words. Are there any other references
> that might
> offer more about the word/ use of the word outside of scripture,
> Perhaps Please forgive me if I do not have the right email format
> but I look
> forward to anything you all can offer.
> God Bless,
> DeLano J. Sheffield
There is a fairly extensive article in _TWNT_ on hILEWS, hILASKOMAI,
hILASMOS, hILASTHRION. Unfortunately, it is much too long to include
here. You might consider looking it up in the library.
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