[B-Greek] ἱ?????? in 1 John 2:2 (expiation/propitiation)
delanojsheffield at hotmail.com
Sat Apr 1 22:30:53 EST 2006
I was wondering if anyone might have some information on ἱëáóìüò in 1
John 2:2. BADG defines the word as 'expiation/propitiation' but I was
reading some other references that explain that there is a really
distinction between the two words. Are there any other references that might
offer more about the word/ use of the word outside of scripture, etc?
Perhaps Please forgive me if I do not have the right email format but I look
forward to anything you all can offer.
DeLano J. Sheffield
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