[B-Greek] John 20:28-Grammatical difference

mabernathy714 at comcast.net mabernathy714 at comcast.net
Sat Apr 1 18:28:24 EST 2006

Maybe I'm being dense but in the context of John 20:29 I don't really see how it is possible to take this to mean anything short of  a declaration that Jesus is Lord and God.  But excluging verse 29, Thomas was speaking to Jesus. Can we reasonably expect that John would have stated that Thomas said to Jesus if Thomas was using Lord and God as an exclamation?
Michael Abernathy

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