[B-Greek] Jn 20:28 - Grammatical difference between the nominative for vocative or of exclamation?

Carlton Winbery winberycl at earthlink.net
Sat Apr 1 15:38:22 EST 2006


>Jn 20:28  APEKRIQH QWMAS KAI EIPEN AUTWi, hO KURIOS MOU KAI hO QEOS MOU.
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>Greetings,
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>The phrase "My Lord and my God" in Jn 20:28 contains articular 
>nominatives (Lord, God) which are identified by Robertson and 
>Wallace as the "Nominative for Vocative". I would think the way 
>Jehovah's Witnesses view this they would want to classify it as the 
>"Nominative for Exclamation". Besides context (Jesus not rebuking 
>Thomas) is there a way to tell the difference between the use of the 
>nominative for vocative and the nominative of exclamation strictly 
>by syntax? Wallace lists 3 ways to identify: (1) the lack of a verb 
>(though one may be implied), (2) the obvious emotion of the author, 
>and (3) the necessity of an exclamation point in translation. I 
>would think reasons 2 and 3 could apply here, but would the verbs 
>APEKRIQH and/or EIPEN disqualify the phrase as a Nominative for 
>Exclamation? Are there any additional ways to support the Nom. for 
>Vocative identification?
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>Thanks,
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>Robb Wallace
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Robb, please leave the JW beliefs and translation out of questions 
for the list. If you want to know what they think, find a list that 
discusses that. Ask about the implications of the Greek of John 20:28 
and leave all else aside. No more about the JW's.

Carlton Winbery
Co-moderator

-- 
Carlton L. Winbery
Retired Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
318-448-6103
winberycl at earthlink.net
winbery at lacollege.edu



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