[B-Greek] him which is, and which was, and which is to come

Daniel Nordlund res90sx5 at verizon.net
Sun Nov 20 18:22:29 EST 2005

The problem would seem to be with whoever tagged your different translations with Strong's numbers, as the Greek text used by KJV and NASB don't differ in Rev 1:4, 1:8, and 4:8.  If you want to know what is in the Greek, there is really no substitute for looking at the Greek.

Dan Nordlund
Bothell, WA 

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On
> Behalf Of dshaffer at latterrainbereans.org
> Sent: Sunday, November 20, 2005 2:36 PM
> To: B-Greek
> Subject: [B-Greek] him which is, and which was, and which is to come
> I would be interested to know what would be a literal translation
> of the phrase used to describe the Almighty in the various verses
> in Revelation. I would especially be interested in the verb tense
> that the Greek would provide, without making the translation
> decide the tense that will be used.
> Here are some observations that I made, which will help to
> clarify what I am looking for.
> According to the Strong numbers, the same phrase is used four
> times through chapter 11 in the King James Version. Then the word
> for "to come" is replaced by the future tense of the "be" verb in
> chapter 16.
> King James Rev. 1:4, 8; 4:8; 11:17
> him which is, and which was, and which is to come;3801
> King James Rev. 16:5
> which art,5607 and2532 wast,2258 and2532 shalt be,2071
> I am not asking why "to come" is replaced by "shalt be," since
> that would be getting into theological implications. My main
> questions are concerning the text that the NASB and some others
> use.
> At Rev. 1:4 the whole three-part phrase which is seen in the King
> James is in the NASB translation, but the Strong's number only
> indicates the "to come" part, which is part of the text that the
> King James uses. How can they justify the three-part phrase if
> the "to come" part is all that is in the Greek?
> NASB Rev. 1:4
> from Him who is and who was and who is to come2064
> Verse 8 is almost the same, but the definite article is also
> there; and it seems to take on the first part of the phrase.
> NASB Rev. 1:8
> "who is and who3588 was and who is to come2064
> Rev. 4:8 has the same Greek words according to the Strong
> numbers, but more of the words are credited to Strong 2064, which
> is the "to come" part.
> NASB Rev. 4:8
> In chapters 11 and 16 the phrase is shortened. It looks like the
> definite article is all there is, and is translated as the first
> two parts of the three-part phrase, except the "were" part seems
> to be credited to the next Greek word.
> NASB Rev. 11:17; 16:5
> who are and who3588
> Something doesn't seem right to me. Is there something that I'm
> not seeing? Is there error in somebody's work of associating the
> Strong numbers to the translation?
> Donald L. Shaffer
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