[B-Greek] [O]TI at Mt 7:14

malcolm robertson mjriii2003 at yahoo.com
Sat Jul 9 15:27:33 EDT 2005


Greetings,
 
What should have been a rather simple passage grammatically has now turned into a perplexing dilemma.
 
Without going into the variant readings in this verse, I am wondering what is the grammatical significance of TI at the head of this passage if it is adopted as the better reading?  Is it an example of the accusative of respect/specification?  The reason it is perplexing (at least to me) is that both the second corrector/scribes (about the 7th century) of both Codex Aleph and Vaticanus changed the original reading OTI and OTI DE respectively to TI.  I can't follow their logic.  Again, I am looking for the grammatical significance here.
 
The verse reads thus:
 
[O]TI STENH hH PULH KAI TEQLIMMENH hH hODOS hH APAGOUSA EIS THN ZWHN KAI OLIGOI EISIN hOI hEURISKONTES AUTHN
 
Cordially in Christ,
 
Malcolm Robertson



		
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