[B-Greek] Ephesians 5:5 "TOU XRISTOU KAI QEOU"

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Sat Jul 2 21:20:29 EDT 2005


You wrote:

> In Ephesians 5:5 we have this phrase "OUK EXEI KLHRONOMIAN EN TH BASILEIA 
> TOU XRISTOU KAI QEOU." 
> 
> My question is the construction of two nouns with one article at the end. 
> How much weight should we put on this when 
> 
> translating it.that is can we say that this supports the deity of 
> XRISTOU.does KAI here mean 'EVEN' because of the 
> 
> lack of an article with QEOU? Is that a reasonable option? Why or why not? 
> I have toyed with translating this phrase. 

Response: I think this particular passage would not fit within the Granville Sharp Rule because I think XRISTOU is a proper name.   So that would go outside the criteria for the Granville construction.  You go on to say...

> Doesn't have an inheritance in the Kingdom of Christ who is God. Or 
> .Christ, even God. What thinkest thou? 
Response: No, I think it would simply be  " in the Kingdom of Christ and God.  Then you write....

> A second question on the same verse relates to the idiomatic Hebrewism? (is 
> that the right spelling?) Expressed in TOUTO GAR 
> ISTE GINWSKONTES Can someone explain to me the concept of an absolute 
> infinitive from Hebrew and how it shapes the 
> meaning here? I know nada in Hebrew and cannot find this in my key 
> grammars. 
> Thank you gentlemen!! 

Response: Well, this is similar to the infinitive absolute.  If you look at 1 Sam 26:25 it reads " gam `asah   ta`asah.
What you have is the first word is an infinitive, written as the root alone, and the second form is a prefix form of the same verb; together they form an emphatic phrase.  And you'd translate this as 'surely' plus the meaning of the verb.  
This is similar to the Hebrew except it does not involve an infinitive, but I think the affect is the same.


--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

/b-greek 


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