[B-Greek] Matthwe 18:2 called a little child unto him, Semitic idiom ?

Schmuel schmuel at escape.com
Sun Jun 8 08:19:16 EDT 2003

Hi b-Greek,

Thanks to Sylvie, Ron, and Jason for their help (some offlist :-)

Though this is somewhat techie (especially to me) I am using it as a textbook
case to try to understand some of the arguments used for Aramaic primacy.

D has the reading:

Ron Fay wrote:
>I'd have a real problem calling this a semitism as I do not recall such syntax being regularly found in the OT (use of "echad" before a verb in order to thematize a noun or else as a modifier of said noun). 

Good point.. I think this is called a semiticism largely because it agrees with the two Old Syriac manuscripts, not because of any Tanach usage... so we get into interesting nuances of language (Syriac/Hebrew) as well as time and locale. 

(The Middle Ages Matthews, ShemTob and DuTillet are also mentioned, which in my view is largely a circular argument, however if a Latin Vorlage would account for their readings, that would help in the explanation).
DuTillet Hebrew Matthew: 
dx) r(nl w#y )rqyw
“And Yeshua called to one boy
” (a certain boy)

<snip more nuanced but interesting part on the Bezae punctuation>

Steven Avery
Queens, NY

schmuel at escape.com

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