[B-Greek] Is "EN ARCH" different than "EN TH ARCH" - John 1:1

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sun Jul 27 13:24:14 EDT 2003

At 1:35 PM -0300 7/27/03, Erich Vaughan Burton wrote:
>If  the words "EN ARCH" in John 1:1 were"EN TH ARCH"
>would there have been any difference in the way one would translate it?
>In general:
>"When a noun is anarthrous following a preopostion,
>does this carry another kind of meaning then when the article
>is present with the noun?

If you are asking strictly about John 1:1, then I don't think there'd be a
difference of meaning (EN THi ARCHi elsewhere could mean "in the realm" or
perhaps other things), but I think the absence of an article here is
accounted for primarily and simply by the fact that Genesis 1:1 in the LXX
begins EN ARCHi (as MT begins B-RSHT).

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/

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