[B-Greek] LInguistic question on Luke 1:1

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Wed Jul 23 04:48:50 EDT 2003

>  I will throw out a lead here. In my understanding, PLHROFOREW is
> being used here rather like PLHROW, of the fulfilment
> (accomplishment) of deeds foretold in prophecy, so that to say
> PEPLHROFORHMENWN EN hHMIN PRAGMATWN would not significantly alter
> the sense of the passage. Compare the recurring use of PLHROW in
> Matthew in reference to the Messianic events that Luke is about
> to embark on his recounting of.

The two words are close in meaning, and that may be why NIV has translated
1:1 with "things that have been fulfilled".
It seems to me that PLHROW is more commonly used of a specific word of
prophecy that is being fulfilled, whereas PLHROFOREW may have the nuance of
"events being carried through to completion/fulfilment". REB, NLT and TEV
talk about things or events "that have taken place", but I would like to
keep the aspect of God as the one behind the scene who made these events
take place (of course, in accordance with the various prophecies he already
had given about the events.)

Iver Larsen

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