[B-Greek] Acts 2:41A LOGOS
waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Tue Jul 22 15:25:08 EDT 2003
hOI MEN OUN APODEXAMENOI TON LOGON AUTOU EBAPTISQHSAN
The NET Bible has a footnote on this verse by
indicating that the word translated here as "message"
is "Grk 'word'".
Dr. Larkin from University of Durham (Ph. D.) has a
commentary on this Book. At this juncture, he has
"message (literally, word)..."
This seems most remarkable to me that these scholars
give the impression that LOGOS "literally" means word,
which implies that it doesn't "literally" mean message
(since they seem to be clarifying this translation).
Why would someone at such scholarly levels imply that
LOGOS has only one literal meaning? Doesn't this
contradict the understanding gained by the works of
linguists and lexographers over the years? LOGOS has
many literal meaning, not one!
If a translation gives LOGOS the translation "word"
here in Acts 2:41, would we not say that "LOGOS
literally means 'message' here"?
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