[B-Greek] Ephesians 2:8 TOUTO
Harry W. Jones
hwjones2 at earthlink.net
Fri Jan 31 21:20:30 EST 2003
I've looked in Robertson's big grammar and on page 704 he gives several
examples of OUTOS in the neuter being used to represent an idea or concept.
For example, 1Pet. 2:19 where TOUTO without a doubt represents such an
idea. That is, hUPOTASSOMEVOI from the previous sentence. I believe this
finally does clear up my mind on the matter.
I appreciate all the help everybody has tried to give me. Thanks.
> [Original Message]
> From: Barry Hofstetter <nebarry at earthlink.net>
> To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Date: 1/31/03 11:42:55 AM
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Ephesians 2:8 TOUTO
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Harry W. Jones" <hwjones2 at earthlink.net>
> To: "b-greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Friday, January 31, 2003 12:50 PM
> Subject: RE: [B-Greek] Ephesians 2:8 TOUTO
> > Hello,
> > If the participle SESWSMENOI were neuter and singular I could see that
> > it is tagged as masculine and also plural by Friberg. So Hukel's idea of
> > PLOUTOS does seem to me to be a more likely candidate. Interestingly,
> > Wallace doesn't mention this.
> SESWSMENOI is indeed masculine plural. However, the problem with PLOUTOS
> antecedent is the fact that it is so far removed from PLOUTOS (I count 18
> and, more importantly, a major change in sense, with the GAR clause), that
> making PLOUTOS the antecedent is not at all clear.
> Also, what would it mean? "For by grace you have been saved through
> this [riches/wealth] not of yourselves..." Contextually, it just doesn't
> to flow. I think assuming that the preceding clause is the antecedent
> explains the use of the neuter singular here.
> N.E. Barry Hofstetter
> Fecisti nos ad te et inquietum est cor nostrum, donec requiescat in te...
> -- Augustine, Confessions 1:1
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