[B-Greek] Purpose Clauses
neildavis2002 at yahoo.com
Wed Jan 29 23:04:54 EST 2003
John 3:16 says *outws gar hgaphsen o qeos ton kosmon
wste ton uion ton monogenh edwken ina pas o pisteuwn
eis auton mh apolhtai all ech zwhn aiwnion*
>From what I understand, this verse contains a 'hina'
clause, the word 'hina' plus the subjunctive verb,
which is used to express the purpose of the main verb
of the sentence. Is this verse therefore saying that
God gave his only begotten Son for the purpose of
giving whoever believes in him eternal life? I am
under the impression that this verse is not indicating
a level of certainty or uncertainty concerning the
eternal wellbeing of those who believe in him, but
rather that it is the purpose of God in giving his
only Son to keep those who believe in him from
perishing. The use of the subjunctive in such a
clause is not to indicate that something 'may' or
'might' result from a given action, but it is stating
the 'purpose of' or 'reason for' an action. Am I
understanding this correctly? Thanks.
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